Exam: CAS-005

Exam Code : CAS-005
Launch Date : December 17, 2024

Exam Description
SecurityX (formerly CASP+) covers the technical knowledge and skills required to architect, engineer, integrate, and implement secure solutions across complex environments to support a resilient enterprise while considering the impact of governance, risk, and compliance requirements.

Number of Questions : Maximum of 90 questions
Type of Questions : Multiple-choice and performance-based
Length of Test : 165 Minutes
Passing Score : This test has no scaled score; it’s pass/fail only.
Recommended Experience : Minimum 10 years general hands on IT experience, 5 years being hands-on security, with Network+, Security+, CySA+, Cloud+ and PenTest+ or equivalent knowledge
Languages : TBD
Retirement  : Generally three years after launch

DoD 8140 Approved Work Roles
SecurityX / CASP+ maps to DCWF work roles used by U.S. DoD Directive 8140.03M. To view approved work roles, click here. For more information on 8140, click here.

Testing Provider  : Pearson VUE
Testing Centers : Online Testing
Price : TBD

CASP+ Name Change To SecurityX
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) will be re-branded to SecurityX with the release of the next exam version CAS-005 on December 17, 2024. The name change emphasizes the advanced, or “Xpert” level certifications in the CompTIA portfolio. This name change will not affect the certification status of current CASP+ certification holders or the continuing education (CE) program. Those with an active CASP+ certification will automatically receive the rebranded SecurityX badge and can download a new certificate and transcript in CertMetrics. The certification will continue to:

Validate job tasks performed by a security professional with 10 years of IT experience and 5 years of security experience
Be designed around the tasks performed by senior security engineer and security architect roles
Be a natural progression from the job roles aligned to Security+

Beta Exam Test Takers
Thank you to all the cybersecurity professionals who sat for the beta exam for the next version of CASP+, CAS-005, rebranded as CompTIA SecurityX. The beta exam closed July 23. The rebranding will begin with the next exam version release, tentatively December 2024. Due to beta exam scoring processes, participants will not know whether they passed/earned the certification until the release date, and will be notified directly from Pearson VUE.

COMPTIA CASP+ GIVES YOU THE CONFIDENCE TO DESIGN, IMPLEMENT, AND MANAGE ENTERPRISE SOLUTIONS

Stand Out in Cybersecurity
CASP+ is the only hands-on, performance-based certification for advanced practitioners — not managers — at the advanced skill level of cybersecurity
While cybersecurity managers help identify what cybersecurity policies and frameworks could be implemented, CASP+ certified professionals figure out how to implement solutions within those policies and frameworks.

Unlike other certifications, CASP+ covers both security architecture and engineering
CASP+ is the only certification on the market that qualifies technical leaders to assess cyber readiness within an enterprise, and design and implement the proper solutions to ensure the organization is ready for the next attack.

CASP+ is compliant with ISO 17024 standards and approved by the U.S. DoD to meet Directive 8140.03M requirements
Regulators and government rely on ANSI accreditation, because it provides confidence and trust in the outputs of an accredited program. Over 3 million CompTIA ISO/ANSI-accredited exams have been delivered since January 1, 2011.

CASP+ is the most up to date advanced-level cybersecurity certification on the market
CASP+ covers technical skills in on premises, cloud native, and hybrid environments, governance, risk, and compliance skills, assessing an enterprise’s cybersecurity readiness, and leading technical teams to implement enterprise-wide cybersecurity solutions.

CASP+ CERTIFIES THAT PROFESSIONALS CAN LEAD AND MANAGE RESILIENCY AGAINST THE NEXT ATTACK

What Skills Will You Learn?

Security Architecture
Analyze security requirements in hybrid networks to work toward an enterprise-wide, zero trust security architecture with advanced secure cloud and virtualization solutions.

Security Operations
Address advanced threat management, vulnerability management, risk mitigation, incident response tactics and digital forensics analysis

Governance, Risk, and Compliance
Prove an organization’s overall cybersecurity resiliency metric and compliance to regulations, such as CMMC, PCI-DSS, SOX, HIPAA, GDPR, FISMA, NIST and CCPA

Security Engineering and Cryptography
Configurations for endpoint security controls, enterprise mobility, cloud/hybrid environments, and enterprise-wide PKI and cryptographic solutions

Keep your certification up to date with CompTIA’s Continuing Education (CE) program

Certification Renewal
Keep your certification up to date with CompTIA’s Continuing Education (CE) program. It’s designed to be a continued validation of your expertise and a tool to expand your skillset. It’s also the ace up your sleeve when you’re ready to take the next step in your career.

Get the most out of your certification
Information technology is an incredibly dynamic field, creating new opportunities and challenges every day. Participating in our Continuing Education program will enable you to stay current with new and evolving technologies, and remain a sought-after IT and security expert.

The CompTIA Continuing Education program
Your CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) certification is good for three years from the date of your exam. The CE program allows you to extend your certification in three-year intervals, through activities and training that relate to the content of your certification. Like CASP+ itself, CASP+ CE also carries globally-recognized ISO/ANSI accreditation status.

It’s easy to renew
You can participate in a number of activities and training programs — including higher certifications — to renew your CASP+ certification. Collect at least 75 Continuing Education Units (CEUs) in three years and upload them to your certification account. Your CASP+ will automatically renew when you do this!

Want more details? Learn more about the CompTIA Continuing Education program.

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QUESTION 1
A security analyst is reviewing the following authentication logs:
Which of the following should the analyst do first?

A. Disable User2's account
B. Disable User12's account
C. Disable User8's account
D. Disable User1's account

Answer: D

Explanation:
Based on the provided authentication logs, we observe that User1's account experienced multiple
failed login attempts within a very short time span (at 8:01:23 AM on 12). This pattern indicates a
potential brute-force attack or an attempt to gain unauthorized access. Heres a breakdown of why
disabling User1's account is the appropriate first step:
Failed Login Attempts: The logs show that User1 had four consecutive failed login attempts:

VM01 at 8:01:23 AM
VM08 at 8:01:23 AM
VM01 at 8:01:23 AM
VM08 at 8:01:23 AM
Security Protocols and Best Practices: According to CompTIA Security+ guidelines, multiple failed
login attempts within a short timeframe should trigger an immediate response to prevent further
potential unauthorized access attempts. This typically involves temporarily disabling the account to
stop ongoing brute-force attacks.
Account Lockout Policy: Implementing an account lockout policy is a standard practice to thwart
brute-force attacks. Disabling User1's account will align with these best practices and prevent further
failed attempts, which might lead to successful unauthorized access if not addressed.

Reference:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives
NIST Special Publication 800-63B: Digital Identity Guidelines
By addressing User1's account first, we effectively mitigate the immediate threat of a brute-force
attack, ensuring that further investigation can be conducted without the risk of unauthorized access
continuing during the investigation period.

QUESTION 2
Which of the following AI concerns is most adequately addressed by input sanitation?

A. Model inversion
B. Prompt Injection
C. Data poisoning
D. Non-explainable model

Answer: B

Explanation:
Input sanitation is a critical process in cybersecurity that involves validating and cleaning data
provided by users to prevent malicious inputs from causing harm. In the context of AI concerns:
A . Model inversion involves an attacker inferring sensitive data from model outputs, typically
requiring sophisticated methods beyond just manipulating input data.
B . Prompt Injection is a form of attack where an adversary provides malicious input to manipulate
the behavior of AI models, particularly those dealing with natural language processing (NLP). Input
sanitation directly addresses this by ensuring that inputs are cleaned and validated to remove
potentially harmful commands or instructions that could alter the AI's behavior.
C . Data poisoning involves injecting malicious data into the training set to compromise the model.
While input sanitation can help by filtering out bad data, data poisoning is typically addressed
through robust data validation and monitoring during the model training phase, rather than realtime input sanitation.
D . Non-explainable model refers to the lack of transparency in how AI models make decisions.
This concern is not addressed by input sanitation, as it relates more to model design and interpretability techniques.
Input sanitation is most relevant and effective for preventing Prompt Injection attacks, where the
integrity of user inputs directly impacts the performance and security of AI models.

Reference:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
"Security of Machine Learning" by Battista Biggio, Blaine Nelson, and Pavel Laskov
OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) guidelines on input validation and injection attacks
Top of Form
Bottom of Form

QUESTION 3
A systems administrator wants to introduce a newly released feature for an internal application. The
administrate docs not want to test the feature in the production environment.
Which of the following locations is the best place to test the new feature?

A. Staging environment
B. Testing environment
C. CI/CO pipeline
D. Development environment

Answer: A

Explanation:
The best location to test a newly released feature for an internal application, without affecting the
production environment, is the staging environment. Heres a detailed explanation:
Staging Environment: This environment closely mirrors the production environment in terms of
hardware, software, configurations, and settings. It serves as a final testing ground before deploying
changes to production. Testing in the staging environment ensures that the new feature will behave
as expected in the actual production setup.
Isolation from Production: The staging environment is isolated from production, which means any
issues arising from the new feature will not impact the live users or the integrity of the production data.
This aligns with best practices in change management and risk mitigation.
Realistic Testing: Since the staging environment replicates the production environment, it provides
realistic testing conditions. This helps in identifying potential issues that might not be apparent in a
development or testing environment, which often have different configurations and workloads.

Reference:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Study Guide by Quentin Docter, Jon Buhagiar
NIST Special Publication 800-53: Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations

QUESTION 4
A cybersecurity architect is reviewing the detection and monitoring capabilities for a global company
that recently made multiple acquisitions. The architect discovers that the acquired companies use
different vendors for detection and monitoring The architect's goal is to:
Create a collection of use cases to help detect known threats
Include those use cases in a centralized library for use across all of the companies
Which of the following is the best way to achieve this goal?

A. Sigma rules
B. Ariel Query Language
C. UBA rules and use cases
D. TAXII/STIX library

Answer: A

Explanation:
To create a collection of use cases for detecting known threats and include them in a centralized
library for use across multiple companies with different vendors, Sigma rules are the best option.
Heres why:
Vendor-Agnostic Format: Sigma rules are a generic and open standard for writing SIEM (Security
Information and Event Management) rules. They can be translated to specific query languages of
different SIEM systems, making them highly versatile and applicable across various platforms.
Centralized Rule Management: By using Sigma rules, the cybersecurity architect can create a
centralized library of detection rules that can be easily shared and implemented across different
detection and monitoring systems used by the acquired companies. This ensures consistency in
threat detection capabilities.
Ease of Use and Flexibility: Sigma provides a structured and straightforward format for defining
detection logic. It allows for the easy creation, modification, and sharing of rules, facilitating
collaboration and standardization across the organization.

QUESTION 5
After an incident occurred, a team reported during the lessons-learned review that the team.
* Lost important Information for further analysis.
* Did not utilize the chain of communication
* Did not follow the right steps for a proper response
Which of the following solutions is the best way to address these findinds?

A. Requesting budget for better forensic tools to Improve technical capabilities for Incident response operations
B. Building playbooks for different scenarios and performing regular table-top exercises
C. Requiring professional incident response certifications tor each new team member
D. Publishing the incident response policy and enforcing it as part of the security awareness program

Answer: B
Explanation:
Building playbooks for different scenarios and performing regular table-top exercises directly
addresses the issues identified in the lessons-learned review. Here's why:
Lost important information for further analysis: Playbooks outline step-by-step procedures for
incident response, ensuring that team members know exactly what to document and how to preserve evidence.
Did not utilize the chain of communication: Playbooks include communication protocols, specifying
who to notify and when. Regular table-top exercises reinforce these communication channels,
ensuring they are followed during actual incidents.
Did not follow the right steps for a proper response: Playbooks provide a clear sequence of actions to
be taken during various types of incidents, helping the team to respond in a structured and effective
manner. Regular exercises allow the team to practice these steps, identifying and correcting any deviations from the plan.
Investing in better forensic tools (Option A) or requiring certifications (Option C) are also valuable,
but they do not directly address the procedural and communication gaps identified. Publishing and
enforcing the incident response policy (Option D) is important but not as practical and hands-on as
playbooks and exercises in ensuring the team is prepared.

Reference:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
NIST SP 800-61 Rev. 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide"
SANS Institute, "Incident Handler's Handbook"

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